So, here’s a thought:
If a man has purchased health insurance through a government exchange and receives a prescription for his erectile dysfunction and then is able to impregnate a woman whom he otherwise would not have been able to, shouldn’t that woman have the right to an abortion paid for by the health insurance plan she obtained through her government exchange should she become pregnant and so desire one…or at least be guaranteed the right to birth control so she could have prevented what never could have been possible had the man not had his insurance coverage in the first place?
